I know when calculating the outs post flop to river you multiply your number of outs (eg 8 for an open ended straight draw) by 4 (eg 8x4 = 32 so 32%) and on the turn you multiply it by 2 (8x2 = 16)
but what is the percentage for preflop. I"m surmising it multiplied by 8
Example from last night. 5p/10p pub game. I have £20. I"m in big blind and hold AJ suited. 8 handed table. UTG min raises and everyone calls. Now I have a hand i"d like to get heads up but doubt I"ll take it down here. so I raise to £2.50 total. UTG insta shoves for £9 total and it"s folded back to me. I didn"t want to see that. With a fair bit of knowledge on villian as I"ve known him for years ( my little brother) I put him on JJ QQ KK or AQ AK. He just call with less pairs to set mine or fold worse Ax
so thinking if he has AQ/AK i have 3
for outs so that would be 3x8 = 24% or he has JJ QQ KK and i have potentially 3 Aces for outs (same 24%) so while the pot is now approx £12 and it"s costing me £7 so I"m not getting the odds but I tank to think if the call is anyway good. I do fold after I ask if he"ll show if I fold and he does. He had JJ.
But was my calculating percentages correct with the 8x or was I being generous?